returning to the original topic (!), I just discovered that "lieth" appears in the King James version of the Bible some 59 times in 57 verses. One which you lot (i.e., the overwhelming female majority of the participants in this group lunacy) should enjoy:
Lev 14:47 And he that lieth in the house shall wash his clothes; and he that eateth in the house shall wash his clothes.
But I digress. The point at issue, and forgive me if this has been discussed and settled long ago, is that even though the word is archaic it is well and truly recorded (some 59 times!) in what has to be considered the work with the most significant influence, with the possible exception of Shakespeare, on subsequent English literature and upon the language itself. If we accept "argal" (and we do, it seems), which is considerably more obscure and as far as I can remember is only found in the gravediggers' scene in Hamlet, why not "lieth"?
Dave
(Who is feeling more pedantic, okay, shitty, than usual because of catching some foul pestilence in the nation's miserably cold and gloomy capital)