Author Topic: "Does anybody know...?"  (Read 10738 times)

Binkie

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Re: "Does anybody know...?"
« Reply #15 on: October 28, 2008, 09:55:21 AM »

Halloween won't be the same without you, sob, sniffle, sob

Binkie

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Re: "Does anybody know...?"
« Reply #16 on: October 28, 2008, 09:56:35 AM »

At this rate, you'll be forming the nucleus of the Chi annual convention!

technomc

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Re: "Does anybody know...?"
« Reply #17 on: October 28, 2008, 09:59:15 AM »
My reply is in the appropriate/relevant thread...

Binkie

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Re: "Does anybody know...?"
« Reply #18 on: October 28, 2008, 10:02:47 AM »
Yessir!

birdy

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Re: "Does anybody know...?"
« Reply #19 on: May 06, 2009, 12:02:22 PM »
Got another question:

Latin does not have articles (a, an, the), but the Romance languages French, Italian, Spanish, and Portuguese all do (I'm not sure about Romanian).  Anybody have any idea where they came from?

technomc

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Re: "Does anybody know...?"
« Reply #20 on: May 06, 2009, 09:21:37 PM »
NO

Linda

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Re: "Does anybody know...?"
« Reply #21 on: May 06, 2009, 10:06:42 PM »
You beat me to it, mate ... I was going to put exactly the same reply but then got called away to do some work!!  >:D

Toni

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Re: "Does anybody know...?"
« Reply #22 on: May 06, 2009, 10:11:07 PM »
I haven't a clue, but I'll try to find out.  My poor little Koreans are flummoxed by articles.  They don't have them in Korean and they just don't "see" them in English.  They will read aloud and just leave out most of them.

birdy

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Re: "Does anybody know...?"
« Reply #23 on: May 06, 2009, 11:01:49 PM »
Wikipedia came through when I googled "grammar articles" - this morning's inspiration.

Etymology

Linguists believe that the common ancestor of the Indo-European languages (i.e., the Proto-Indo-European language) did not have a definite article. Most of the languages in this family do not have definite or indefinite articles; there is no article in Latin, Sanskrit, Persian, nor in some modern Indo-European languages, especially in Slavic languages — Russian, Polish and Czech, etc., nor in the Baltic languages — Latvian, Lithuanian and Latgalian. (The only Slavic languages that have articles are Bulgarian and Macedonian.) Errors with the use of the and other determiners are common among people learning English (e.g., native Czech-speaker Ivana Trump, first wife of Donald Trump, referring to him as "the Donald"). Classical Greek has a definite article, but Homeric Greek did not. In the etymologies of these and many other languages, the definite article arose from a demonstrative pronoun or adjective changing its usage; compare the fate of the Latin demonstrative "ille" (meaning "that") in the Romance languages, becoming French le, la, l’, and les, Spanish el, la, lo, los, and las, Italian il, la, lo, l’, i, gli, and le, and Portuguese o, os, a, and as.

In some languages, such as Icelandic, Norwegian and Romanian, the definite article is not always a separate word but is sometimes attached to the end of the noun it governs:

hestur, horse: hesturinn, the horse (IS) stol, chair: stolen, the chair (N) drum, road: drumul, the road (RO)

The and that are common developments from the same Old English system. Old English had a definite article se, in the masculine gender, seo (feminine), and þæt (neuter). In Middle English these had all merged into þe, the ancestor of the Modern English word the.

In Middle English the (þe) was frequently abbreviated as a þ with a small e above it, similar to the abbreviation for that, which was a þ with a small t above it. During the latter Middle English and Early Modern English periods, the letter Thorn (þ) in its common script, or cursive, form came to resemble a y shape. As such the use of a y with an e above it as an abbreviation became common. This can still be seen in reprints of the 1611 edition of the King James Version of the Bible in places such as Romans 15:29, or in the Mayflower Compact. Note that the article was never pronounced with a y sound, even when so written.

technomc

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Re: "Does anybody know...?"
« Reply #24 on: May 07, 2009, 04:31:45 AM »
Good heavens.....

It's all Greek to me...

Toni

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Re: "Does anybody know...?"
« Reply #25 on: May 07, 2009, 06:05:30 PM »
I also went in Wiki questions and got this:

Unlike the Romance languages, the English language doesn't derive from the Latin language. Instead, its structure is consistent with its source in Middle English. Middle English in turn derives from Anglo-Saxon. And Anglo-Saxon derives from the parent language to English and to German. And both English and German preserve the use of definite articles.

The Romance languages, such as French and Italian, use the equivalents to the English definite articles 'a' and 'the'. In the ancient, classical Latin, there was no use of definite articles. Instead, the demonstrative adjective/pronoun 'that' existed as 'ille' in the masculine, 'illa' in the feminine, and 'illud' in the neuter. In the interaction between ancient Latin and the ancient languages of the conquered peoples of the Roman Empire, over time these demonstrative adjectives turned into the present-day equivalents of definite articles, such as the feminine 'la' and the masculine 'le' in French.


Alonzo Quixote

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Re: "Does anybody know...?"
« Reply #26 on: May 08, 2009, 05:18:26 AM »
birdy

To answer your question about things you are not allowed to have before gum surgery—

  • aspirin and vitamin E are both blood thinners

A person doesn't want to take a blood thinner before gum surgery because this would cause any bleeding that occurs during the surgery to continue without allowing the blood to clot.

I once made the mistake of taking a blood thinner before a tooth was to be removed and I had to get a shot of Vitamin K at the hospital to stop the bleeding after the tooth was removed.